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Post by Eyalan on Aug 8, 2006 10:58:07 GMT -5
It seems to be that only the hobbits have last family names.. Also the men of Bree ( but they lived in close contact with hobbits). Did anyone else notice this?
As for dwarves, does Oakenshield count as a family name? The elves, the men of Rohan and Gondor did not have them.
Could it be that Tolkien wanted to distinguish the hobbits from the rest of the races, giving them somewhat familiar last names, to add a touch of homeliness and a cozylike community? The great men and elves did not need it as they were of "nobler" descendance?
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Post by Anwyn on Sept 5, 2006 21:49:04 GMT -5
The Rohirrim most referred to themselves by heritage and birth to trace bloodlines, For example
"Theoden, son of Thengel" "Eomer, son of Eudmond"
Or in the femine
"Eowyn, Daughter of Theodwyn"
Its intresting becuase it is noted in the appendixes (On languages) that the Hobbits heard the speech of the mark and thought that it was very similar to there own (Or it could have been the other way around)
The Rohirrim culture was based very strongly on anglo saxxon culture, and to the best of my knowledge the anglo saxxons did not go by last names either, though I have a slight feeling I may be wrong there.
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Post by Haldir on Sept 5, 2006 21:53:46 GMT -5
Awesome explanation Anwyn ... *Exalt*
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Post by Eyalan on Sept 14, 2006 20:10:58 GMT -5
Thank you Anwyn! You might have an explanation also for this; Is it always so, that daughter are referred to their mother and sons to their father?
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Post by Miluiel Greenleaf on Oct 8, 2006 21:12:51 GMT -5
I had thought that was the custom.
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