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Post by Eyalan on Apr 1, 2007 3:41:18 GMT -5
This isn't a rant tread about Arwens appearance first of all. I just am wondering about a phrase she used.
(I know this isn't in the book, that's why I am asking), but I don't understand why Arwen says "What grace has given me, let it pass to him," when Frodo is in the thralls of death. I don't understand it. I've read the books over and over trying to make sense of the phrase but to no avail. (And I do know that she isn't the one that rescues Frodo in the books.) But there has to be something because otherwise they wouldn't put it in the film, right? Any ideas?
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Post by Telpeath on Apr 5, 2007 20:55:48 GMT -5
Finally I get to use my knowledge since i am : TELPEATH, ALL KNOWING RULER ON ARWEN UNDOMIEL INFORMATION *Light shines in glory on him as he smiles* *girls scream* *teeth shimmer*
When Arwen says that line, it is almost a sort of spell. See, elves had magic, as expressed by Elrond. It is believed that when Arwen stated this, she was using some of her elven magic so that Frodo might live. When she uses the line 'grace', that more than likely means life, long life in her case, which Frodo does in fact recieve. Cause if im not mistaken, he has a long life, and is spared from the Nazul poison.
Hope this helps.
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Post by Haldir on Apr 5, 2007 21:05:06 GMT -5
Well he had a longer life while carrying the Ring, did he not? And he did sail to Valinor, so his life span is pretty.. unknown.
My guess that she was referring to the grace of the Valar, perhaps?
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Post by Telpeath on Apr 5, 2007 21:10:10 GMT -5
Oh yeh, forgot those details. Yes, she was refering to the Valar, but i think she passed a little of it to him so that his life would be spared, or that he would get to Rivendell without Dying.
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Post by Haldir on Apr 5, 2007 21:11:43 GMT -5
Seemed like she was calling to Elrond with it though... he did answer.
Pity it isn't in the book... I was about to flip through it for furthur details, but alas... I just remembered that it doesn't exist in it.
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Post by Telpeath on Apr 5, 2007 21:13:20 GMT -5
Yeh too bad. And there is no other instance that she does that.
Was it really calling her father? How so?
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Post by Haldir on Apr 5, 2007 21:17:29 GMT -5
After she speaks... Elrond answers to it in Elvish... "Lasto beth nín, tolo dan nan galad." And that line does have an effect on Frodo. I think that only Elvish verses have real power; it's an ancient tongue... the tongues of Men have no magical effect on anything, so Arwen's line shouldn't either.
I think she spoke to her through her mind and he did the same. Lord Elrond does have that ability.
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Post by Telpeath on Apr 5, 2007 21:20:23 GMT -5
But since that line was in here thoughts, she could have been speaking elvish. They maybe showed the translation because that is how elrond would have heard it.
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Post by Haldir on Apr 5, 2007 21:25:33 GMT -5
When they speak Elvish, they speak Elvish... and they put subtitles for us. Elrond would have heard it in Elvish, and the audio would have been in Elvish too, if she had really said it in Elvish. Since her first tongue is obviously Sindarin and not the language of Men.
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Post by orophin on Apr 5, 2007 21:30:12 GMT -5
I don't know much elvish but maybe what Arwen said, Elrond repeated in elvish.
Okay, bad theory...
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Post by Haldir on Apr 5, 2007 21:56:41 GMT -5
Good guess... but his healing words were "Hear my voice, come back to the light."
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Post by orophin on Apr 5, 2007 22:10:45 GMT -5
Maybe they just added Arwen's line for dramatic effect.
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Post by Haldir on Apr 5, 2007 22:14:25 GMT -5
Yeah probably... it WOULD have been kind of odd for her to just weep and say nothing.
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Post by orophin on Apr 5, 2007 22:19:34 GMT -5
Yeah, sometimes people say something that won't happen or means nothing out of sadness.
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Post by Telpeath on Apr 6, 2007 11:42:16 GMT -5
^Great Idea Orophin! It would kinda sound wierd if she didnt say anything.
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~Attained 1000 posts on April 6th at 3:22 pm.~
